IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (2023)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2021

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:

Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature’s capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, the cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson of Harvard University, says: “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct.”

Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential. Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.

The web of life is torn when human beings exploit natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practices trigger 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and institution “sustainable utilization” will help turn the environmental crisis around.

1. Why does the author compare ‘nature’ to ‘business’?

(A) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business

(B) Because of the similarity with which one should use both

(C) Because of the same interest level yield

(D) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs

Answer: (D)

2. “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us”-What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?

(A) Reducing the profit margin

(B) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business

(C) Eroding the capital base of the business

(D) Putting interest on capital back into the business

Answer: (C)

3. Which of the following statements is false in the context of the passage?

(A) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence

(B) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant specie

(C) Chemicals for cancer treatment are available from plants

(D) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?

(A) Increase the number of species of edible plants being cultivated.

(B) Increase cultivation of the 150j species presently under cultivation

(C) Increase the cultivation of medicinal plants

(D) Increases the potential of the uncultivated edible plants

Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of forests?

(A) Soil Erosion

(B) Destruction of Habitat

(C) Cutting of Trees

(D) Bad Agricultural Practices

Answer: (C)

6. The author gives two examples of ‘unsuitable exploitation’. These are:

(A) Bad agricultural practices and soil erosion

(B) Bad agricultural practices and trade in tropical hardwoods

(C) Trade in tropical hardwoods and soil erosion

(D) Trade in tropical hardwoods and losing tonnes of grain output

Answer: (B)

7. The passage is about

(A) Business

(B) Nature

(C) Environmental Crisis

(D) Agricultural Practices

Answer: (B)

8. What, according to the author, is ‘environmental crisis’

(A) Trade in tropical hardwoods

(B) Bad agricultural practices

(C) Soil erosion

(D) The ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following words is nearly the same in meaning as the words ‘wasted’ as used in the passage?

(A) Consumed

(B) Squandered

(C) Unutilised

(D) Unprofitable

Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following words is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘cutting’ as used in the passage?

(A) Uniting

(B) Avoiding

(C) Joining

(D) Combining

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. Which of the following is the next term in the series?

PAT, PEN, PIT, PON, ?

(A) PET

(B) POT

(C) PUT

(D) PAN

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following continues the series?

2, 4, 6, 9, 12, ?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 17

Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 49, 81, ?, 169

(A) 100

(B) 64

(C) 121

(D) 144

Answer: (C)

14. Rohit said to a girl, “Your mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Rohit related to the girl?

(A) Father

(B) Uncle

(C) Brother

(D) Cousin

Answer: (A)

15. In a code language, STAR is written as RATS, then ROUT will be written as:

(A) TOUR

(B) TORU

(C) ROTU

(D) TUOR

Answer: (D)

16. In a code language 25 means, ‘Green Apple’, 35 means ‘Red Apple’ and 34 means ‘Red Cherry’. What is the code for ‘Green Cherry’?

(A) 23

(B) 24

(C) 34

(D) 43

Answer: (B)

17. Father said to the son, “When you were born, I was of your present age.” If the father is 36 years old now, how old was the son 7 years ago?

(A) 11 years

(B) 13 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 17 years

Answer: (A)

18. A circular coin is placed on a plane surface. How many more coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each touches the central coin and adjacent coins?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

19. From a starting point, a man moves 3 km north, then turns west and walks 2 km, again turns back and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is the how from starting point?

(A) 5 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 10 km

(D) 12 km

Answer: (A)

20. If 3rd of December is Saturday, then the last day of the month would be:

(A) Monday

(B) Saturday

(C) Thursday

(D) Sunday

Answer: (B)

21. Five houses A to E are in a row. A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of A, and B is to right of D. Which house is in the middle?

(A) D

(B) C

(C) B

(D) A

Answer: (D)

22. The medians of a triangle ABC intersect at D. How many triangles are formed in the resulting figures?

(A) 18

(B) 16

(C) 12

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

23. If 6 + 7 is 43 and 5 + 6 is 31, then 4 + 5 is :

(A) 9

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 25

Answer: (C)

24. If 213 is written as 6 and 432 is written as 9, then 543 would be written as:

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (C)

25. If order of first 13 English alphabets is reversed, then which letter would not change its position?

(A) E

(B) F

(C) G

(D) H

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ?, 27

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (D)

27. The population of a town consists of 45% men and 40% women. If the number of children is 30,000, then the total population of the town is:

(A) 2 lakhs

(B) 3 lakhs

(C) 4.5 lakhs

(D) 6 lakhs

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following words appears first of all in the dictionary?

(A) Compensate

(B) Compassionate

(C) Compression

(D) Competition

Answer: (B)

29. Preetig ranks 38th in her class both from top and bottom. How many students are there in the class?

(A) 77

(B) 76

(C) 75

(D) 74

Answer: (C)

30. A square is divided into 16 equal parts by intersecting lines parallel to its sides. How many squares are formed in the resulting figure?

(A) 16

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 36

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Kisan Diwas is celebrated on:

(A) October 23

(B) November 23

(C) December 23

(D) September 23

Answer: (C)

32. “A Bunch of Old Letters” was written by:

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Abdul Kalam

(D) Morarji Desai

Answer: (A)

33. Who is known as ‘Man of Destiny’?

(A) Adolf Hitler

(B) George Bernard Shaw

(C) Napoleon

(D) Shakespeare

Answer: (C)

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34. Mission Innovation aims to:

(A) accelerate clean energy innovation to address climate change

(B) promote indigeous development of Nano Satellites

(C) adopt new methods of agriculture

(D) adopt new methods of water harvesting

Answer: (A)

35. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?

(A) Lord Warren Hastings

(B) Lord Dalhousie

(C) Lord Curzon

(D) Lord Linlithgow

Answer: (D)

36. The ‘Red Line campaign’ started by India is related to which of the following field?

(A) Fencing of India-Pakistan Border

(B) Zero open defecation

(C) Curb irrational use of antibiotics

(D) Zero corruption

Answer: (C)

37. The Union Budget is presented under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

(A) 110

(B) 111

(C) 112

(D) 113

Answer: (C)

38. When was the Indian Post Office Act passed?

(A) 1852

(B) 1853

(C) 1854

(D) 1898

Answer: (D)

39. Which event occurred first in India’s Independence struggle?

(A) Simon Commission

(B) Non-Cooperation Movement

(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(D) Tripura Adhiveshan of Congress

Answer: (B)

40. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:

(A) UK

(B) Canada

(C) USA

(D) South Africa

Answer: (C)

41. The country which levied a tax on WhatsApp and Facebook in the year 2018 is:

(A) Uganda

(B) Zambia

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Tanzania

Answer: (A)

42. According to the World Bank, which country remained the top recipient of remittances in 2018?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Mexico

(D) Philippines

Answer: (A)

43. The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through:

(A) Argentina

(B) Bolivia

(C) Brazil

(D) Chile

Answer: (B)

44. Similipal Tiger Reserve is situated in the State of:

(A) Odisha

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) West Bengal

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

45. In which State is Silent Valley situated?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Assam

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (B)

46. A document called “ The Future We Want” related to which of the following organizations?

(A) United Nations Conference of Sustainable Development

(B) Global Environment Facility

(C) United nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(D) Convention on Biological Diversity

Answer: (A)

47. The Spratly Islands are located in which of the following seas?

(A) The Caspian Sea

(B) The Black Sea

(C) The Mediterranean Sea

(D) The South China Sea

Answer: (D)

48. Tapti river originates from which district of Madhya Pradesh?

(A) Betul

(B) Balaghat

(C) Chhindwara

(D) Hoshangabad

Answer: (A)

49. Which of the following monuments in India is not a world heritage?

(A) Fatehpur Sikri

(B) Ajanta and Ellora

(C) Khajuraho

(D) Jantar Mantar in Delhi

Answer: (D)

50. ‘Life Divine’ is written by:

(A) Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) V.V Giri

(C) Amrita Pritam

(D) V.D. Savarkar

Answer: (A)

51. Which writ is issued by the High Court to the lower courts to stop legal actions?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Prohibition

(C) Quo warranto

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (B)

52. Return of income is submitted under which Section of the Income Tax Act?

(A) Section 138(1)

(B) Section 142(1)

(C) Section 139(1)

(D) Section 129(1)

Answer: (C)

53. National Knowledge Commission was headed by:

(A) Ashok Ganguly

(B) P. Balaram

(C) Sam Pitroda

(D) Deepak Nayyar

Answer: (C)

54. Which of the following is the apex body in the area of Teacher Education in India?

(A) UGC

(B) NIEPA

(C) NCTE

(D) NCERT

Answer: (C)

55. The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by:

(A) UNICEF

(B) UNESCO

(C) UNDP

(D) UNITAR

Answer: (B)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. RTE Act, 2009 envisages all children free admission to:

(A) Sainik schools

(B) Army schools

(C) Neighbourhood schools

(D) Navodaya schools

Answer: (C)

57. “Learning Without Burden” is the report submitted by a committee under the chairmanship of:

(A) Prof. Amrit Desai

(B) Prof. Amrik Singh

(C) Prof. Ved Prakash

(D) Prof. Yashpal

Answer: (D)

58. What is the verbal component of a poster?

(A) Image

(B) Caption

(C) Graph

(D) Table

Answer: (B)

59. Which of the following learner characteristics impacts teaching the most?

(A) Prior experience of the learner

(B) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(C) Peer group of learner

(D) Family size from which the learner comes

Answer: (A)

60. National Education Day is observed on November 11 every year in the memory of:

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Zakir Hussain

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (B)

61. Determining the aims of Education is the responsibility of:

(a) Parents (b) Teachers

(c) Students (d) Society

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) only (a)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

62. Immediate outcome of teaching is related to:

(A) desirable changes in the behaviour of students.

(B) development of personality of students.

(C) moral development of students.

(D) enhancing employability.

Answer: (B)

63. Discipline in the class essentially helps to:

(A) establish teacher’s authority.

(B) make children understand that indiscipline is punishable.

(C) make classroom activities organised and orderly.

(D) adhere to the time-table.

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following is not desirable for effective teaching?

(A) Questioning

(B) Using teaching aids

(C) Following textbook rigidly

(D) Encouraging student talk

Answer: (C)

65. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) Multiple tests

(b) Criteria-based tests

(c) Assessment for learning

(d) Assessing scholastic and co-scholastic aspects

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

66. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple choice type questions?

(A) These are objective.

(B) These are subjective.

(C) These do not need appropriate distractors.

(D) These do not have a fixed answer.

Answer: (A)

67. The key component of teacher-student communication during teaching is:

(A) Humour

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(B) Learner’s problems

(C) Subject content

(D) Motivating statements

Answer: (D)

68. Which among the following is a teacher-centred method?

(A) Project

(B) Lecture

(C) Group work

(D) Brainstorming

Answer: (B)

69. A teacher as a facilitator is one who:

(A) delivers lectures.

(B) explains concepts and principles.

(C) gives printed notes to students.

(D) inspires students to learn.

Answer: (D)

70. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of students

(C) Silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: (A)

71. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are:

(A) Encoders

(B) Decoders

(C) Noise eliminators

(D) Senders

Answer: (B)

72. CIET stands for:

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Educational Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques

Answer: (C)

73. An effective classroom environment has:

(A) No teaching aids

(B) Lively student-teacher interaction

(C) Silence

(D) Strict discipline

Answer: (B)

74. In which period did India become a centre of higher learning with Nalanda and Taxila?

(A) Chola period

(B) Gupta period

(C) Harappa Civilization period

(D) Mughal period

Answer: (B)

75. Curriculum is:

(A) same as syllabus

(B) content to be taught

(C) overall educational activities within and outside the school.

(D) only teaching, no other activities.

Answer: (C)

76. What is the full from SWAYAM?

(A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(B) Study Webs for Accustomed Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(C) Study Ways of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(D) Study Webs of Actual Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Answer: (A)

77. Operation Blackboard was launched under National Policy on Education (1986) to:

(A) provide schools with adequate number of blackboards.

(B) create awareness for using blackboards.

(C) provide minimum essential facilities to the schools.

(D) use blackboard effectively in the teaching learning process.

Answer: (C)

78. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of:

(A) course coverage.

(B) aims of teaching.

(C) learning outcomes of students

(D) use of teaching aids in the classroom.

Answer: (C)

79. Good teaching does not involve:

(A) Guiding

(B) Motivating

(C) Explaining

(D) Encouraging rote learning

Answer: (D)

80. Project method is based on the principle of:

(A) Learning by play-way

(B) Learning by doing

(C) Learning from teacher

(D) Learning from books

Answer: (B)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. Cause of Acid rain is:

(A) Release of oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur in the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels.

(B) Friction among clouds causes electric charges

(C) Humidity produces acid vapour

(D) Sun heats up the clouds

Answer: (A)

82. Which of the following is acidic in nature?

(A) Common Salt solution

(B) Pure water

(C) Lemon juice

(D) Baking soda solution

Answer: (C)

83. What is the volume of 16 g of oxygen at Standard Temperature and pressure (S.T.P.)?

(A) 22.4 litres

(B) 11.2 litres

(C) 22.4 cm3

(D) 11.2 cm3

Answer: (B)

84. Mass number of an element is X and it has 11 electrons. The number of neutrons in it is:

(A) X + 11

(B) X

(C) 11

(D) X – 11

Answer: (D)

85. An example of a chemical change is:

(A) Conversion of water into ice

(B) Conversion of water into steam

(C) Heating of a resistor on passing current

(D) Conversion of milk into curd

Answer: (D)

86. A man is 10 feet away from his image in a plane mirror fixed in a wall. He walks 3 feet towards the mirror. What is the distance between him and his image now?

(A) 2 feet

(B) 3 feet

(C) 4 feet

(D) 6 feet

Answer: (C)

87. If a ray of light is going from air to glass and angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r we have:

(A) i < r

(B) sin i = sin r

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(D) sin i × sin r = Constant

Answer: (C)

88. Two resistance of two ohms each are joined in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?

(A) 1 ohm

(B) 2 ohms

(C) 3 ohms

(D) 4 ohms

Answer: (A)

89. What unbalanced force in Newton (N) will accelerate a 25 kg body from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 seconds?

(A) 1 N

(B) 5 N

(C) 25 N

(D) 50 N

Answer: (C)

90. Watt is the unit of:

(A) Energy

(B) Work

(C) Force

(D) Power

Answer: (D)

91. The planet nearest to Earth in our Solar System is:

(A) Mercury

(B) Venus

(C) Mars

(D) Jupiter

Answer: (A)

92. Alpha particles are:

(A) Positively charged

(B) Negatively charged

(C) Not charged

(D) Same as photons

Answer: (A)

93. Night blindness is caused due to:

(A) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’

(B) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘B’

(C) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’

(D) Excess of Vitamin ‘A’

Answer: (A)

94. Why is a flash of lightning seen before the sound of thunder is heard?

(A) Because light travels faster than sound

(B) Because light is produced much earlier

(C) Because sound is obstructed by clouds

(D) Because sound is produced farther away

Answer: (A)

95. The disease ‘Jaundice’ is associated with:

(A) Eyes

(B) Lungs

(C) Gums

(D) Liver

Answer: (D)

96. It is the process by which green plants manufacture food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight.

(A) Osmosis

(B) Radioactivity

(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Ecology

Answer: (C)

97. Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?

(A) Zinc

(B) Copper

(C) Boron

(D) Sodium

Answer: (D)

98. What is the measure of acidity of a liquid?

(A) Boiling Point

(B) Freezing Point

(C) pH

(D) Density

Answer: (C)

99. Which one of the following is also known as ‘Laughing Gas’?

(A) Helium

(B) Nitrous oxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide

(D) Nitrogen

Answer: (B)

100. Respiration involves exchange of:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide

(D) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

Answer: (A)

Section-V: (ii) Mathematics

101. The sum of the odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:

(A) 575

(B) 625

(C) 675

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(D) 725

Answer: (B)

102. Ten observations have been arranged in ascending order as under:

29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95

The median is 63. The value of x is:

(A) 60

(B) 61

(C) 62

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

103. 75th Percentile coincides with:

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(C) First Quartile

(D) Third Quartile

Answer: (D)

104. Mean, Median and Mode coincide in:

(A) Positively skewed curve

(B) Negatively skewed curve

(C) Normal probability curve

(D) Leptokurtic curve

Answer: (C)

105. The value of sec A(1 – sin A) (sec A + tan A) is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) sin A

(D) cos A

Answer: (B)

106. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° ad the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. The tower is 50 m high. The height of the building is:

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Answer: (A)

107. In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is:

(A) 45°

(B) 60°

(C) 90°

(D) 120°

Answer: (C)

108. 8 men can dig a pit in 20 days. If a man works half as much more as a boy, 4 men and 9 boys will dig a similar pit in:

(A) 12 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 16 days

(D) 18 days

Answer: (C)

109. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs 1,800 thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is:

(A) Rs 100

(B) Rs 120

(C) Rs 140

(D) R 160

Answer: (B)

110. A wooden box is 110 cm × 90 cm × 40 cm is size. Packets 22 cm in length, 15 cm in breadth and 6 cm in height are to be placed in it. How many of these can be place in the box?

(A) 160

(B) 180

(C) 200

(D) 220

Answer: (C)

111. The approximate value of :

0.4 × 0.4 + 0.04 × 0.04 + 0.04 is:

(A) 0.16

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.44

(D) 0.46

Answer: (B)

112. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 30 kmph and another one at 42 kmph. From the moment they meet, the will cross each other in:

(A) 13 seconds

(B) 12 seconds

(C) 11 seconds

(D) 10 seconds

Answer: (B)

113. A student passed in first division securing 440 marks, but missed distinction marks of 75% by 10 marks. The maximum marks for the exam was:

(A) 500

(B) 550

(C) 700

(D) 600

Answer: (D)

114. A sum of money amounts to Rs 1,800 in 2 years and Rs 2,592 in 4years at a compound interest rate of:

(A) 10%

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(C) 15%

(D) 20%

Answer: (*)

115. The HCF and LCM of two number are 16 and 672 respectively. If one of the numbers is 112, what is the other number?

(A) 96

(B) 192

(C) 80

(D) 48

Answer: (A)

116. A man’s salary was decreased by 30% and then increased by 30%. The net change is:

(A) 10% increase

(B) 10% decrease

(C) 9% decrease

(D) 9% increase

Answer: (C)

117. The average salary of male employees in a firm is Rs 5,200 and that of female employees is Rs 4,200. The mean salary of all employees is Rs 5,000. The percentage of female employees is:

(A) 15%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 30%

Answer: (B)

118. How much would A get if a sum of Rs 890 is to be divided amongst A, B and C such that A : B is 4 : 5 and B : C is 6 : 7?

(A) Rs 160

(B) Rs 200

(C) Rs 220

(D) Rs 240

Answer: (D)

119. A father’s age is 5 times the age of his daughter. It was 9 times, five years ago. How old is the father now?

(A) 45 years

(B) 50 years

(C) 55 years

(D) 60 years

Answer: (B)

120. A two-digit number is less than 30. The sum of its digits is 7 and their multiplication product is 10. The number is:

(A) 16

(B) 24

(C) 25

(D) 28

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. Which of the following periodicals is not correctly matched with the editor?

(A) Bande Mataram : Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) Sandhya : Barindra Ghosh

(C) New India : Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Yugantar : Bhupendranath Datta

Answer: (B)

122. An instrument used to record the motion of the ground during an earthquake is:

(A) Seismometer

(B) Seismogram

(C) Seismology

(D) Seismograph

Answer: (D)

123. The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:

(A) Ireland

(B) Australia

(C) Britain

(D) USA

Answer: (A)

124. The idea of “Lokpal” bill is taken from:

(A) Britain

(B) America

(C) Scandinavian countries

(D) France

Answer: (C)

125. Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress?

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Rajkumari Amrita Kaur

(C) Annie Besant

(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Answer: (C)

126. Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of ‘Sardar’ to Vallabhbhai Patel for his great organisational skill in the :

(A) Kheda Satyagraha

(B) Bardoli Satyagraha

(C) Salt Satyagraha

(D) Champaran Satyagraha

Answer: (B)

127. Andaman wild pig is an example of:

(A) Vulnerable species

(B) Endemic species

(C) Rare species

(D) Extinct species

Answer: (B)

128. Which country has the highest productivity of rice?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (B)

129. The main source of National Income in India is ………. .

(A) Primary Sector

(B) Secondary Sector

(C) Service Sector

(D) Allied Sector

Answer: (C)

130. The central banking functions are performed by the:

(A) Central Bank of India

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) State Bank of India

(D) Punjab National Bank

Answer: (B)

131. The First Battle of Panipat was in the year:

(A) 1520

(B) 1526

(C) 1530

(D) 1535

Answer: (B)

132. Who was popularly known as the “Parrot of India”?

(A) Amir Khusro

(B) Khwaja Nasir

(C) Parthasarathi Mishra

(D) Chand Bardai

Answer: (A)

133. The Capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was:

(A) Lahore

(B) Ambala

(C) Patiala

(D) Amritsar

Answer: (A)

134. Of the four events mentioned below, which was the last to take place?

(A) The Cripps Mission

(B) Simla Conference

(C) Cabinet Mission Plan

(D) The Ratings Mutiny

Answer: (C)

135. Which dynasty ruled during the years 1206 – 1290 in India?

(A) Mauryan dynasty

(B) Slave dynasty

(C) Gupta dynasty

(D) Chalukya dynasty

Answer: (B)

136. The organization that negotiates trade agreements between almost all of the nations in the world is:

(Video) Ignou B.ed. previous year question Papers for Entrance Exam | 2022

(A) WTO

(B) UNO

(C) UNDP

(D) IMF

Answer: (A)

137. The lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is:

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Thermosphere

Answer: (C)

138. Black soil is most suitable for the cultivation of:

(A) Paddy

(B) Maize

(C) Cotton

(D) Wheat

Answer: (C)

139. Which of the following rivers is called as Dakshina Ganga?

(A) Kaveri

(B) Krishna

(C) Godavari

(D) Tungabhadra

Answer: (C)

140. A Public Service Commission was established in India for the first time by:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1892

(B) The Government of India Act, 1919

(C) The Act of 1909

(D) The Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. Being a big businessman, Gita’s father is very affluent.

(A) Prosperous

(B) Poor

(C) Talkative

(D) Intelligent

Answer: (A)

142. The massacre of Kashmiri Pandits in 1990 was tragic.

(A) Stabbing

(B) Slaughter

(C) Murder

(D) Genocide

Answer: (D)

143. The young boys were reprimanded for watching obscene videos.

(A) Objectionable

(B) Vulgar

(C) Displeasing

(D) Condemnable

Answer: (B)

144. He pilfered many precious things from the palace.

(A) Destroyed

(B) Damaged

(C) Stole

(D) Snatched

Answer: (C)

145. Resilience is a desirable human trait.

(A) Flexibility

(B) Pride

(C) Rigidity

(D) Joyfulness

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) acomodate

(B) accomodate

(C) accommodate

(D) acommodate

Answer: (C)

147.

(A) purtinacious

(B) pertinacious

(C) purtenacious

(D) pertenecious

Answer: (B)

148.

(A) perilous

(B) parilous

(C) perilus

(D) parilus

Answer: (A)

149.

(A) bleeth

(B) blith

(C) blithe

(D) bleethe

Answer: (C)

150.

(A) invidous

(B) invidious

(C) envidous

(D) envidious

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. He is mystic by nature.

(A) spiritual

(B) magical

(C) visionary

(D) worldly

Answer: (D)

152. The number of words in a dictionary are finite.

(A) strange

(B) endless

(C) indefinite

(D) vague

Answer: (B)

153. He had ample number of days to prepare for the exam.

(A) insufficient

(B) large

(C) small

(D) adequate

Answer: (A)

154. He lived a lavish life:

(A) showy

(B) rich

(C) simple

(D) moral

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

155. The soldiers were instructed to …… restraint and handle the situation peacefully.

(A) exercise

(B) control

(C) prevent

(D) enforce

Answer: (A)

156. Since one cannot read all books, one should be content with making a ………. selection.

(A) normal

(B) standard

(C) judicious

(D) moderate

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Choose the correct answer.

157. The novel ‘Wuthering Heights’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (B)

158. The poem ‘Daffodils’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Byron

Answer: (C)

159. The play ‘Man and Superman’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neil

(D) Aurobindo Ghosh

Answer: (B)

160. The novel ‘The Guide’ was written by:

(A) Rabindranath Tagore

(B) R. K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (4)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (5)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (6)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (7)

Answer: (B)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (8)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (9)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (10)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (11)

Answer: (B)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (12)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (13)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (14)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (15)

Answer: (D)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (16)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (17)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (18)

Answer: (B)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (19)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (20)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (21)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (22)

Answer: (B)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (23)

Answer: (A)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key | ENTRANCE INDIA (24)

Answer: (C)

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